ACVN 2021

A drug that is administered intravenously will have what bioavailability value?
1 of 111
Do orally administered drugs typically have a high or low bioavailability?
2 of 111
Which plasma protein is primarily responsible for transporting drugs in the circulation?
3 of 111
Where does biotransformation usually occur?
4 of 111
Does drug elimination always occur at a constant rate?
5 of 111
What term is used to describe a drug that binds to a receptor and causes a cellular effect?
6 of 111
What term is used to describe a drug that binds to a receptor and does NOT cause a cellular effect, or blocks a cellular effect
7 of 111
What term describes a drug’s attraction to a receptor binding site?
8 of 111
Venous haemorrhage is easily identified in a first aid case by:
The dark red blood
9 of 111
Appropriate first aid treatment for a dog with a severed digital artery is:
Application of digital pressure until the bleeding stops
10 of 111
A cat is presented with a severe loss of skin at the bottom half of his tail. This would be recorded as:
11 of 111
A labrador has consumed an unknown quantity of chocolate, at an unknown time. What is the first clinical sign you would check?
Heart rate
12 of 111
A cat has consumed Lillies at some point in the last 24hrs. What is the most appropriate first aid treatment?
Take the cat to a veterinary practice ASAP
13 of 111
The first aid treatment for theobromine poisoning would be:
Administer an emetic
14 of 111
The main ingredient in commonly used rat poison is:
15 of 111
In first aid the highest priority is given to a patient with:
Airway obstruction
16 of 111
A dog that has been hospitalised for haemorrhagic gastroenteritis should be watched for:
17 of 111
The normal respiratory rate for an adult dog is:
10-20 breaths per minute
18 of 111
The first aid treatment for warfarin poisoning would be:
Administer an emetic
19 of 111
The usual route to measure the body temperature of the dog is via the rectum; what other location could be used?
External ear canal
20 of 111
In cardiac massage, rhythmic compression of the rib cage should be applied every:
0.5 seconds
21 of 111
The first aid treatment for a case of metaldehyde poisoning would be:
Administer an emetic
22 of 111
The term used for difficulty breathing is:
23 of 111
A springer spaniel is admitted with a heart rate of 165 beats per minute. What is the term for this change in heart rate?
24 of 111
Nutritional support for cats with chronic renal failure aims mainly to:
Modified protein and phosphorus intake
25 of 111
Patient 1. Laboured breathing, marked abdominal effort, the chest isn't expanding. What underlying condition is most likely?
Pleural effusion
26 of 111
Patient 1. You've walked into prep to find this cat
Supplement oxygen
27 of 111
Patient 1. Now he has had some oxygen, what next?
Prep for a thoracentesis
28 of 111
Patient 1. The veterinary surgeon has drawn the fluid off the chest (a pinky colour), any idea what has caused this? (high protein, low cells)
Congestive heart failure
29 of 111
Patient 2. Has come in with a pleural effusion. The veterinary surgeon has drained the chest withdrawing this fluid (a red colour). What type of effusion is present?
30 of 111
Patient 2. Name a toxin that could result in this presentation
Warfarin (blood thinner)
31 of 111
Patient 3. What is the most likely cause of this patients facial swelling after playing in the garden?
Bee sting
32 of 111
Patient 3. If you were assessing this casualty "in the field" what would you check first?
Are there any more bees? (DRABC!)
33 of 111
Patient 3. The patient develops dyspnoea and collapses. What type of shock is he suffering from?
34 of 111
Patient 3. Which immunoglobulin is responsible for this reaction?
35 of 111
Patient 3. Degranulation of which leucocyte (cell is purple with a large nucleus and purple granules) has caused this reaction?
Mast cell
36 of 111
Patient 3. Which two drugs does this patient urgently require?
Oxygen and adrenaline
37 of 111
Patient 4. After 2 minutes of compressions. Trace = random electrical pattern in the heart. Does he need:
A defibrillator
38 of 111
Patient 4. There is no defibrillator! What else can you try?
A pre-cordial thump
39 of 111
Patient 5. Bob is a diabetic cat. His owner phones as he has collapsed mid-morning after his insulin. What should she do?
Administer sugar to his gums
40 of 111
Patient 5. What type of shock is Bob suffering from?
41 of 111
Patient 5. What is the most likely cause of Bob's presentation?
42 of 111
Patient 5. Bob arrives at the surgery collapsed and only responding to noxious stimuli. What is his level of consciousness?
43 of 111
Patient 5. The veterinary surgeon suspects Bob's diabetes may be in remission. Is it possible for cats to stop being diabetic?
Yes, type II diabetes is reversible
44 of 111
What is the correct definition of 'clinical audit?
Clinical audit is reviewing quality of care against explicit criteria in order to improve patient care
45 of 111
Following consideration of the situation and animal's condition and welfare, a veterinary surgeon declines to visit an animal away from the practice and instead offers to see the animal at the practice. Who is responsible for the animal's welfare until th
The owner
46 of 111
Who is responsible for ensuring support staff are competent, courteous and properly trained in providing advice to the public?
Veterinary surgeons and veterinary nurses
47 of 111
When should a veterinary practice refuse to provide a second opinion about a case?
If the client refuses to share information regarding the previous treatment of the animal
48 of 111
What is the purpose of providing first aid and pain relief to any animal presented to a veterinary clinic
To ensure the essential welfare needs of the animal are met
49 of 111
The drug is hydrophobic
50 of 111
The drug affects only 1 receptor in a very specific location
51 of 111
The drug has a very low therapeutic index
52 of 111
The drug can pass the blood-brain barrier
53 of 111
The drug is passed into the urine in its active form
54 of 111
Owners should be warned to wear gloves if handling the animal's urine after administration
Pharmacokinetics and Pharmacodynamics
55 of 111
Feline infectious peritonitis is caused by a pathogenic mutation of which virus?
Feline coronavirus
56 of 111
How long can animals suffering from canine infectious hepatitis shed infectious viral particles for after clinical recovery?
9 months
57 of 111
A low fat diet is most suitable foe an animal suffering from which acute condition?
58 of 111
Weight loss, borborygmi, discoloured faeces and diarrhoea are clinical signs that could be associated with which condition?
59 of 111
Exocrine Pancreatic Insufficiency is best managed with what treatment?
Highly digestible food and exogenous enzyme application pre-feeding
60 of 111
How is total parental nutrition administered?
Through a venous catheter
61 of 111
A dog has the following clinical signs: dysphagia, increased swallowing motions, excessive salivation and is extending his head and neck during swallowing. He has a history of regurgitation following food. What condition is the veterinary surgeon most li
62 of 111
What is a congenital portosystemic shunt?
A blood vessel that bypasses the liver
63 of 111
Weight loss, steatorrhoea, and bulky faeces are most commonly seen with which disorder?
Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
64 of 111
When is total parenteral nutrition indicated?
When the animal is unable to digest food
65 of 111
Giardia most commonly causes which clinical sign?
66 of 111
How does the pharmacodynamic effect of maropitant differ to metoclopramide?
Maropitant acts centrally with no pro-kinetic effects and may offer GI analgesia
67 of 111
When administering a feed through a feeding tube, what is the correct sequence of events?
Ensure tube is in place, flush with sterile saline, administer the feed, flush tube
68 of 111
Which antiemetic is most effective in feline patients?
69 of 111
Renin is released from which organ in response to low blood perfusion in the juxtaglomerular complex?
70 of 111
What else triggers renin release from the kidney?
Decrease in sodium concentration in the distal tubule
71 of 111
Renin causes which reaction to occur?
Angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
72 of 111
Name the key site of angiotensin-converting enzyme production?
73 of 111
What does the WORD angiotensin mean when you break it down?
Blood vessel and pressure
74 of 111
What effect does angiotensin II have on blood vessels?
75 of 111
What effect does angiotensin II have on blood pressure?
76 of 111
What triggers the negative feedback loop to cease renin release, effectively switching "off" the RAAS?
Restoration of circulating volume and pressure, increased perfusion of the juxtaglomerular complex
77 of 111
What kind of pharmacodynamic interaction does MANNITOL have on the body?
Chemical - NON receptor based
78 of 111
If the pulmonary vessels are dilated, what effect will this have on "pre load" to the left atrium?
Reduced preload - decreasing atrial filling speed
79 of 111
A healthy domestic rabbits diet should be in what proportions?
80% hay, 15% fresh veg, 5% nuggets
80 of 111
At what level is a rabbit's blood glucose level considered life threatening?
bove 20mmol/L
81 of 111
Chyletiella parasitovorax is a parasite that affects many exotic species. What is its more common name?
Walking Dandruff
82 of 111
Where is Thyroxine (T4) produced from?
83 of 111
What is a consequence of hypoparathyroidism?
Low Calcium
84 of 111
What is the condition of hypoadrenocorticism more commonly known as?
85 of 111
Hyperadrenocorticism is mainly caused by a pituitary tumour, what % of patients does this affect?
86 of 111
With hypoadrenocorticism, which electrolyte is increased significantly and lead to bradycardia?
87 of 111
What is our first nursing intervention or consideration for treating a patient with hypoadrenocorticism?
88 of 111
What % of dogs are overweight?
89 of 111
The area of the kidney where urine collection occurs before entering the ureter is known as the?
Renal pelvis
90 of 111
In the kidney, the primary site of action for ADH is in the?
Collecting duct
91 of 111
The indent on the side of the kidney is known as the?
92 of 111
What is the basic functional unit of the kidney called?
93 of 111
Approximately what % of the blood pumped from the heart goes to the kidneys?
94 of 111
Which TWO biochemical parameters need to be elevated to indicate a patient has azotaemia?
Urea and Creatinine
95 of 111
The kidney produces which hormone in response to hypoxia?
96 of 111
Which elevated parameter is most dangerous, to a patient with a urethral obstruction?
97 of 111
What is the main concern for a urinary catheter that has not been placed aseptically?
Ascending bacterial infection
98 of 111
Renal damage, gastric ulceration and abnormal haemostasis are all potential side effects of using which drug?
99 of 111
What test can be used to help confirm Exocrine Pancreatic Insufficiency?
Trypsin-like immunoreactivity (TLI)
100 of 111
Patients that have progressed biliary disease usually present with what coloured mucous membranes?
Jaundice (Yellow)
101 of 111
Elevated levels of bilirubin are primarily linked to which organ being diseased?
102 of 111
Copper Toxicity is the accumulation of copper in which organ?
103 of 111
Protein malnutrition in patients with hepatic disease manifests clinically as?
Weight loss, muscle atrophy and hypoalbuminaemia
104 of 111
Which species are more prone to hypothyroidism?
105 of 111
What species of animal is mainly affected by hyperthyroidism?
106 of 111
What is the MAIN cause of hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's) disease?
Atrophy due to immune-mediated adrenalitis
107 of 111
What TWO hormones should be assayed to test for canine hypothyroidism?
T4 + TSH
108 of 111
What hormone is MOST commonly assayed to diagnose feline hyperthyroidism?
109 of 111
What TWO hormones could be elevated in a patient with Cushing's?
ACTH + Cortisol
110 of 111
What is the MOST common cause of Cushing's disease?
Secondary pituitary
111 of 111

Other cards in this set

Card 2


Do orally administered drugs typically have a high or low bioavailability?



Card 3


Which plasma protein is primarily responsible for transporting drugs in the circulation?


Preview of the front of card 3

Card 4


Where does biotransformation usually occur?


Preview of the front of card 4

Card 5


Does drug elimination always occur at a constant rate?


Preview of the front of card 5
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